The point of contention between Revisionists and the orthodoxy regarding the 300,000 non-employable Hungarian Jews at Auschwitz is, in my opinion, very similar to that of the conundrum regarding the Jews sent to Aktion Reinhard camps: what actually happened to them?
The orthodox narrative gives one simple answer: they were gassed! Sounds simple enough... but photographic evidence, chemical/forensic evidence, horribly inconsistent testimony, and an abundance of official documentation which contradicts any policy of 'gassing' strongly suggests otherwise.
As far as the Revisionist narrative, the answer is also quite simple: they were sent elsewhere! The specifics here, however, are where things get foggy for Revisionism as well. What I have read in the literature thus far is that there really is no clear documentation which might answer this question. What I am still wondering is, according to the Revisionist view... why not?
- Did the Germans just not care to thoroughly document these people since
(2) the non-employable were to be sent elsewhere immediately and thus seen irrelevant to camp operations?
Also, I read in Crowell's discussion of Hungarian transports from ca. 2001 that there were at least 520 locations (incl. 386 camps) where Hungarian Jews were ultimately held in German territories throughout the war. But this doesn't really tell where non-employable Jews would have most likely been sent from Auschwitz. What would make the most sense?
- How many different camps/locations/etc. could have even been considered as potential for masses of Jewish women/children/elderly (e.g. how many family camps or similar)?
- Would it have made more sense for them to be sent in small groups to many locations, or large groups to fewer? What might be some criteria used to have made this decision?
Where are the hungry, Hungary Jews??!