As "instigator" of this thread I feel obliged to answer and explain (if possible) some of the arising questions.
(To Mod1: I understand your backstep and accept it.)
First, I want to clarify my position in this topic because some people attack me for the (indeed thin) sources, as well as the number of 2,6 million Polish jews. I fear, this number has taken a life on its own on this forum. However, I'm only a service hatch to bring this information, I find it important enough for further study/proving it. In the meantime, it's probably careful to place a query after the thread title, until further investigation is done.
Be it as it is, I think this matter (true, half true or untrue) important for the revisionist sake to study and/or clarify.
I brought it in a dedicated thread cause Hannover and some others suggested so I and hope by collective discussion to gather solid information about it.
My sources are indeed scanty and thin ( http://www.sztetl.org.pl/en/term/493,po ... me-change/
The Dutch book was published a few years ago on internet. The writer's name is a pseudonym. A publisher isn't given, nor any ISBN number. Searching the net gives no further information about his person or other publications. However, the book is as serious as it is voluminous and very dedicated (two Parts, 1,240 pages, nearly 2,400 footnotes).
Some time later I came along an actualized version, which in it the footnotes with the name changing decree from 1945 and the given number of 2,6 million Jews.
I read the original source some time ago, but now can't find the link anymore in the original form. I hope, as Reviso suggested, someone can help using the "Internet Wayback Machine" (I myself don't know how it works).
The other footnote mentioned a 1989 "demand" to Polish Pope John Paul II to use his authority preventing the Polish Government to open archives about the subject, as being "anti-semitic". John Paul II was a Polish Pope dedicated to improve Catholic Church's relations with Judaism; later he wrote he was: "deeply saddened by the hatred, acts of persecution and displays of anti-Semitism directed against the Jews by Christians at any time and in any place."
I did store this information in my mind until a discussion on this site about "millions" of "murdered" (Polish) Jews. Next to other facts proving "6 million Jews murdered, included 3 million Polish Jews" it seemed me worthwhile to mention this Post War Polish name changing matter (starting 1945!).
In my opinion it is relevant because:
1. It is known from revisionist research that 1,5-2 million Polish Jews fled, before and during the War to Soviet territory.
2. It's not plausible that all of them stayed in the SU after the War. Much of them had possessions in Poland, real estate, business interests, positions, etc. and wanted to claim those back again.
3. In 1945, Soviet communist regime took over Poland to permanently stay there. The Soviets had and were flooding the World with their "millions and millions of people murdered by the murderous fascists"
and of course zero interest or motivation to downplay this ludicrous propaganda by admitting huge numbers of Polish (and other Eastern Europeans) being alive coming back.
4. Moreover, huge numbers of "murdered by the fascists"
were instrumental to downplay their own monstrous misdeeds before, during and after the War.
5. Jewish interests were close in keeping with that. They also propagandized before, during and after the War their Talmudic "Six Million Jews murdered" mantra and couldn't concede huge numbers of Jews in reality survived. This the more so, because just at that time they were constructing their "Jewish State" Israel, motivated by "Six Million Jews murdered".
6. This problem could partly be solved by granting returning Polish Jews the opportunity to change their names (and as a consequence leaving "old" names as "missing" in "the Holocaust"). And so it happens after 1945, I suppose. A Win-Win situation for communists and Jews.
7. Of course, most Jews made use of this generous possibility. Reasons for them were plenty and in itself justified. Jew-hate was vigilant and very aggressive in Poland directly after the War. There was much anti-Jewish violence and rioting against them, for example in Kielce in July 1946 where 40 Jews were killed. (Question: were vigorous Post-War anti-Jewish sentiments possibly related to huge numbers of returning Jews, claiming former possessions, houses, positions, etc.?). So name-changing came as called for.
Many Jews had typical Jewish and German-sounding names which, for security and social reasons both they want to convert to more neutral names.
Also believable are efforts not to make the Post-War Polish Name Changing public. This for further damage control to their "Six Million" murdered in "the Holocaust". That story is already hopelessly tattered ("4 million Jews died in Auschwitz" lowered to 1,1 million; in all other "extermination camps" (Treblinka, Chelmno, Sobibor, Belzec) not more than a few dozen corpses/ashes could be proven, etc.). What if masses of "name changers" will come to that? So it's very understandable that information about massive Post War Jewish name changing is kept behind closed doors.
FACTS about Polish name changing are:
- There WAS a Polish name changing decree immediately after the War (1945). (Further research is needed about reasons for it.)
- It is for CERTAIN that numerous Jews made use of the opportunity. (Further investigation is needed to ascertain by approximation HOW MUCH it were: tens of thousands, hundreds of thousands or more).
- HUGE Post War Jewish emigration from Poland was imminent.
Further research is needed to determine if archives about it for that period are open for public, and if not, for what reasons.
Further research is also needed what happened to the "old" Jewish names. Were these (partly) used supporting "millions of Jews "missing" in "the Holocaust"?
Was there any proven pressure to/from Pope John Paul II to use his authority to prevent disclosure of those important archive information after 1989? If so, from who, what was his reaction and/or was this effective?
Some of the reactions on this thread have already given useful information for further investigation. With the help of contributions on this thread, I will do further research about it.
I hope we will be able to gather more information to clear this important issue and came to a balanced conclusion.
["Werd" mentioned "Jewish World Organization" (JWO) being non-existent in 1989. I think it's because the source mistakenly spoke of "JWO", in stead of World Jewish Congress (WJC). It was only the "damages" robbing branch of WJC (WJRO) that was formed in 1991.]